I was studying category theory when a question came to my mind.
It is often argued that, given a mathematical object, its categorical properties are exactly those which are isomorphism-invariant. What does this mean? I'd like to make this statement more precise, and not being enough competent I'm asking a question about.
I suppose this somehow presupposes the presence of a categorical language (which, roughly speaking, has as sorts objects and morphisms and as operations the composition, the identity, domain and codomain; in that, it applies equally to all categories) and to call a categorical property (or universal property) a one-variable predicate in that language. At this point, I suppose the statement in bold could be rephrased saying that, given two objects of a fixed category, they are isomorphic if and only if they satisfy the same categorical properties.
Is this the way? How could one make it formal or precise?
EDIT Thanks to present answers, we've found out that isomorphic objects share the same categorical properties, whereas the converse may not be true. Is there a study about the categories in which this holds, i.e., what are the categories in which two objects having the same categorical properties are isomorphic? Is Set one of those?